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Share some CWNA CertificationCWNA-106 exam questions and answers below. When using an RF splitter to connect one transceiver to sector antennas loss is incurred. What is this loss called? A. Conversion loss B. Through loss C. Active loss D. Intentional loss Answer: B
What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes through a medium of a varying density from that of free space? A. Diffraction B. Reflection C. Refraction D. Diffusion E. Scattering Answer: C
What factors influence the distance that an RF signal can be effectively received? (Choose 3) A. Transmitting station’s power source B. Receiving station’s radio sensitivity C. Free Space Path Loss D. MAC layer encryption E. Transmitting station’soutput power F. Temperature in the Fresnel zone Answer: B,C,E
AP-1 is a 3x3:2 AP. STA-3 is a 3x3:3 client. What is the maximum number of spatial streams that can be used for a downlink HT-OFDM transmission from AP-1 to STA-3? A. One spatial stream, because the definition of the AP indicates that it is capable of only one spatial stream. B. Three spatial streams, because the definition of the client indicates that it is capable of only three spatial streams. C. Two spatial streams, because the definition of the AP indicates that it is capable of only two spatial streams. D. Three spatial streams, because the definition of the AP indicates that it is capable of only three spatial streams. Answer: C
ABC Company has just purchased a 6 dBi patch antenna. After performing some tests with the 6 dBi antenna, they have concluded that more antenna gain is needed to cover their outdoor courtyard. When choosing an antenna with higher gain, what other antenna characteristic will also always change? A. Fresnel Zone size B. Maximum input power C. Beamwidth D. Impedance E. VSWR Ratio Answer: C
You are implementing a VHT-capable AP. Which one of the following channels is available in the 802.11ac amendment to the 802.11-2012 standard, which was not available in the standard before this amendment? A. 153 B. 144 C. 161 D. 56 E. 48 Answer: B
What HT technology requires MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? A. Spatial multiplexing B. Shot guard intervals C. Maximal ratio combining D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing Answer: A
What can cause an excessively high VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) in a WLAN RF transmission line? A. An impedance mismatch inthe RF cables and connectors B. Reflected direct current (DC) voltage on the main RF signal line C. Attenuation of the RF signal as it travels along the main signal path D. Crosstalk (inductance) between adjacent RF conductors Answer: A
What is the intended use for the WLAN hardware known as a pole or mast mount unit? A. Mounting a lightning arrestor to a grounding rod B. Mounting anomnidirectional antenna to a mast C. Mounting an RF amplifier to a dipole antenna D. Mounting a PoE injector to a perforated radome E. Mounting an access point to a site survey tripod Answer: B
Return Loss is the decrease of forward energy in a system when some of the power is being reflected back toward the transmitter. What will cause high return loss in an RF transmission system, including the radio, cables, connectors and antenna? A. A Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of 1:1 B. An impedance mismatch between components in the RF system C. The use of cables longer than onemeter in the RF system D. High output power at the transmitter and use of a low-gain antenna Answer: B
When replacing the antenna of a WLAN device with a similar antenna type that has a higher passive gain, what antenna characteristic will decrease? A. Beam width B. Range C. Active gain D. Receive sensitivity Answer: A
As an RF wave propagates through space, the wave front experiences natural expansion that reduces its signal strength in an area. What term describes the rate at which this expansion happens? A. MU-MIMO B. Inverse square law C. Fresnel zone thinning D. Ohm¡¯s law Answer: B
In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true? A. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into theRF system to compensate for unpredictable signal fading. B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver¡¯s antenna gain. C. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnelzone is clear of obstructions. D. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space, and is a function of frequency and distance. Answer: A
What can cause an excessively high VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) in a WLAN RF transmission line? A. An impedance mismatch inthe RF cables and connectors B. Reflected direct current (DC) voltage on the main RF signal line C. Attenuation of the RF signal as it travels along the main signal path D. Crosstalk (inductance) between adjacent RF conductors Answer: A
You are selecting antennas for a WLAN operating in the 5 GHz frequency band. What specifications should be evaluated for an antenna before it is implemented in this WLAN system? (Choose 3) A. 802.11ad compatibility B. TPC support C. Impedance in Ohms D. Elevation Beamwidth E. Return Loss Rating F. Operating Frequencies Answer: C,D,F
What factors are taken into account when calculating the Link Budget of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN bridge link? A. Operating frequency B. Transmit antenna gain C. Transmit power D. Antenna height Answer: A,B,C
What factors influence the distance that an RF signal can be effectively received? (Choose 3) A. Transmitting station¡¯s power source B. Receiving station¡¯s radio sensitivity C. Free Space Path Loss D. MAC layer encryption E. Transmitting station¡¯soutput power F. Temperature in the Fresnel zone Answer: B,C,E
Return Loss is the decrease of forward energy in a system when some of the power is being reflected back toward the transmitter. What will cause high return loss in an RF transmission system, including the radio, cables, connectors and antenna? A. A Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of 1:1 B. An impedance mismatch between components in the RF system C. The use of cables longer than onemeter in the RF system D. High output power at the transmitter and use of a low-gain antenna Answer: B
Which unit of measurement is an absolute unit that is used to quantify power levels on a linear scale? A. dBm B. SNR C. RSSI D. VSWR Answer: A
What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes through a medium of a varying density from that of free space? A. Diffraction B. Reflection C. Refraction D. Diffusion E. Scattering Answer: C
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Share some The Open Group Certification OG0-091 exam questions and answers below. Complete the sentence. The Architecture Board is typically responsible and accountable for achieving all of the following goals except ___________ A. ensuring consistency between sub-architectures B. approving the strategic business plans proposed by individual organization units within the enterprise C. enforcement of architecture compliance D. identifying and approving components for reuse E. providing the basis for all decision-making with regard to changes to the architecture Answer: B
According to TOGAF, Which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture? A. An architecture of a commercial organization B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization Answer: C
Which section of the TOGAF document describes the processes, skills and roles to establish and operate an architecture function within an enterprise? A. Part II: Architecture Development Method B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework Answer: E
Complete the sentence. All of the following are parts of the conceptual structure of the TOGAF Architecture Governance Framework, except ______ A. Content B. Context C. Process Flow Control D. Repository E. Vision Answer: E
An association of companies has defined a data model for sharing inventory and pricing information. Which of the following best describes where this model would fit in the Architecture Continuum? A. Foundation Architecture B. Common Systems Architecture C. Industry Architecture D. Organization Specific Architecture E. Product Line Architecture Answer: C
According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category is for resources NOT referenced by content within the other categories? A. TOGAF Core B. TOGAF Extension C. TOGAF Mandatory D. TOGAF Recommended E. TOGAF Supporting Answer: E
An association of companies has defined a data model for sharing inventory and pricing information. Which of the following best describes where this model would fit in the Architecture Continuum? A. Foundation Architecture B. Common Systems Architecture C. Industry Architecture D. Organization Specific Architecture E. Product Line Architecture Answer: C
What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise? A. Capability Architecture B. Operational Architecture C. Segment Architecture D. Strategic Architecture E. Tactical Architecture Answer: D
The Requirements Management Phase is responsible forWhich one of the following activities? A. Addressing requirements B. Disposal of resolved requirements C. Generating requirements D. Managing the flow of requirements E. Prioritizing requirements Answer: D
According to TOGAF, where should architecture governance artifacts be stored? A. In the Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model B. In the Standards Information Base C. In the Foundation Architecture D. In the Architecture Repository Answer: D
Complete the sentence. The key purpose of Gap Analysis is to _____ A. establish quality parameters for the architecture B. identify potential missing or overlapping functions C. validate nonfunctional requirements D. identify commercial building blocks to be purchased E. determine the required service levels for the architecture Answer: B
Complete the sentence. All of the following are sections of the recommended template for defining Architecture Principles, except ___________ A. Name B. Statement of Principle C. Rationale D. Enforcement Policy E. Implications Answer: D 35.Which one of the following lists the five quality criteria for defining Architecture Principles? A. Rational, Explained, Precise, Stated, Identifiable B. Comprehensive, Future proof, Short, Concise, Consistent C. Open, Enabling, Flexible, Agile, Dynamic D. Stable, Understandable, Complete, Robust, Consistent Answer: D
Which phase of the ADM focuses on the governance and management of the Architecture Contracts that cover the overall implementation and deployment process? A. Requirements Management B. Phase E C. Phase F D. Phase G E. Phase H Answer: D
What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise? A. Capability Architecture B. Operational Architecture C. Segment Architecture D. Strategic Architecture E. Tactical Architecture Answer: D
What document is used to initiate a TOGAF ADM cycle? A. Architecture Roadmap B. Statement of Architecture Work C. Architecture Landscape D. Request for Architecture Work E. Architecture Vision Answer: D
Which phase of the TOGAF ADM is the first phase directly concerned with the planning for the implementation of the target architecture(s)? A. Phase D B. Phase E C. Phase F D. Phase G E. Phase H Answer: B
What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform? A. Standards Information Base B. Enterprise Continuum C. Governance Log D. Architecture Landscape E. Reference Library Answer: A
In TOGAF, What is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable? A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not Answer: E
Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9 recommends the establishment of a(n) _____ A. Enterprise Architecture Capability B. IT Governing Board C. Program Management Office D. Quality Assurance department E. Service Management department Answer: A
According to TOGAF, the recommended dimensions used to define the scope of an architecture include all the following, except: A. Architecture Domains B. Enterprise Focus C. Level of Detail D. Subject Matter E. Time Period Answer: D
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Share some Palo alto Networks ACE Certification PCNSE7 exam questions and answers below. Only two Trust to Untrust allow rules have been created in the Security policy Rule1 allows google-base Rule2 allows youtube-base The youtube-base App-ID depends on google-base to function. The google-base App-ID implicitly uses SSL and web-browsing. When user try to accesss https://www.youtube.com in a web browser, they get an error indecating that the server cannot be found. Which action will allow youtube.com display in the browser correctly? A. Add SSL App-ID to Rule1 B. Create an additional Trust to Untrust Rule, add the web-browsing, and SSL App-ID's to it C. Add the DNS App-ID to Rule2 D. Add the Web-browsing App-ID to Rule2 Answer: C
Which command can be used to validate a Captive Portal policy? A. eval captive-portal policy B. request cp-policy-eval C. test cp-policy-match D. debug cp-policy Answer: C
The GlobalProtect Portal interface and IP address have been configured. Which other value needs to be defined to complete the network settings configuration of GlobalPortect Portal? A. Server Certificate B. Client Certificate C. Authentication Profile D. Certificate Profile Answer: A
A firewall administrator has completed most of the steps required to provision a standalone Palo Alto Networks Next-Generation Firewall. As a final step, the administrator wants to test one of the security policies. Which CLI command syntax will display the rule that matches the test? A. test security -policy- match source destination destination port protocol B. show security rule source destination destination port protocol C. test security rule source destination destination port protocol D. show security-policy-match source destination destination port protocol test security-policy-match source Answer: A
How is the Forward Untrust Certificate used? A. It issues certificates encountered on the Untrust security zone when clients attempt to connect to a site that has be decrypted/ B. It is used when web servers request a client certificate. C. It is presented to clients when the server they are connecting to is signed by a certificate authority that is not trusted by firewall. D. It is used for Captive Portal to identify unknown users. Answer: C
The web server is configured to listen for HTTP traffic on port 8080. The clients access the web server using the IP address 1.1.1.100 on TCP Port 80. The destination NAT rule is configured to translate both IP address and report to 10.1.1.100 on TCP Port 8080. Which NAT and security rules must be configured on the firewall? (Choose two) A. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 Zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application B. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-zone using service-http service. C. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.1.100 in untrust-I3 zone using service-http service. D. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application. Answer: CD
The web server is configured to listen for HTTP traffic on port 8080. The clients access the web server using the IP address 1.1.1.100 on TCP Port 80. The destination NAT rule is configured to translate both IP address and report to 10.1.1.100 on TCP Port 8080. Which NAT and security rules must be configured on the firewall? (Choose two) A. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 Zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application B. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-zone using service-http service. C. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.1.100 in untrust-I3 zone using service-http service. D. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application. Answer: A
A company has a pair of Palo Alto Networks firewalls configured as an Acitve/Passive High Availability (HA) pair. What allows the firewall administrator to determine the last date a failover event occurred? A. From the CLI issue use the show System log B. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the System log C. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the configuration log D. Check the status of the High Availability widget on the Dashboard of the GUI Answer: D
Which client software can be used to connect remote Linux client into a Palo Alto Networks Infrastructure without sacrificing the ability to scan traffic and protect against threats? A. X-Auth IPsec VPN B. GlobalProtect Apple IOS C. GlobalProtect SSL D. GlobalProtect Linux Answer: A
A network administrator uses Panorama to push security polices to managed firewalls at branch offices. Which policy type should be configured on Panorama if the administrators at the branch office sites to override these products? A. Pre Rules B. Post Rules C. Explicit Rules D. Implicit Rules Answer: A
Which client software can be used to connect remote Linux client into a Palo Alto Networks Infrastructure without sacrificing the ability to scan traffic and protect against threats? A. X-Auth IPsec VPN B. GlobalProtect Apple IOS C. GlobalProtect SSL D. GlobalProtect Linux Answer: D
A company has a pair of Palo Alto Networks firewalls configured as an Acitve/Passive High Availability (HA) pair. What allows the firewall administrator to determine the last date a failover event occurred? A. From the CLI issue use the show System log B. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the System log C. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the configuration log D. Check the status of the High Availability widget on the Dashboard of the GUI Answer: D
Only two Trust to Untrust allow rules have been created in the Security policy Rule1 allows google-base Rule2 allows youtube-base The youtube-base App-ID depends on google-base to function. The google-base App-ID implicitly uses SSL and web-browsing. When user try to accesss https://www.youtube.com in a web browser, they get an error indecating that the server cannot be found. Which action will allow youtube.com display in the browser correctly? A. Add SSL App-ID to Rule1 B. Create an additional Trust to Untrust Rule, add the web-browsing, and SSL App-ID's to it C. Add the DNS App-ID to Rule2 D. Add the Web-browsing App-ID to Rule2 Answer: C
A company is upgrading its existing Palo Alto Networks firewall from version 7.0.1 to 7.0.4. Which three methods can the firewall administrator use to install PAN-OS 7.0.4 across the enterprise?( Choose three) A. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 files from the support site and install them on each firewall after manually uploading. B. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 to a USB drive and the firewall will automatically update after the USB drive is inserted in the firewall. C. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 updates from the support site to install on each firewall. D. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 update from one firewall to all of the other remaining after updating one firewall. E. Download and install PAN-OS 7.0.4 directly on each firewall. F. Download and push PAN-OS 7.0.4 from Panorama to each firewall. Answer: A,E,F
Which Public Key infrastructure component is used to authenticate users for GlobalProtect when the Connect Method is set to pre-logon? A. Certificate revocation list B. Trusted root certificate C. Machine certificate D. Online Certificate Status Protocol Answer: D
A company.com wants to enable Application Override. Given the following screenshot: Which two statements are true if Source and Destination traffic match the Application Override policy? (Choose two) A. Traffic that matches "rtp-base" will bypass the App-ID and Content-ID engines. B. Traffic will be forced to operate over UDP Port 16384. C. Traffic utilizing UDP Port 16384 will now be identified as "rtp-base". D. Traffic utilizing UDP Port 16384 will bypass the App-ID and Content-ID engines. Answer: CD
How is the Forward Untrust Certificate used? A. It issues certificates encountered on the Untrust security zone when clients attempt to connect to a site that has be decrypted/ B. It is used when web servers request a client certificate. C. It is presented to clients when the server they are connecting to is signed by a certificate authority that is not trusted by firewall. D. It is used for Captive Portal to identify unknown users. Answer: A
Which command can be used to validate a Captive Portal policy? A. eval captive-portal policy B. request cp-policy-eval C. test cp-policy-match D. debug cp-policy Answer: C
The GlobalProtect Portal interface and IP address have been configured. Which other value needs to be defined to complete the network settings configuration of GlobalPortect Portal? A. Server Certificate B. Client Certificate C. Authentication Profile D. Certificate Profile Answer: B,C,D
A company is upgrading its existing Palo Alto Networks firewall from version 7.0.1 to 7.0.4. Which three methods can the firewall administrator use to install PAN-OS 7.0.4 across the enterprise?( Choose three) A. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 files from the support site and install them on each firewall after manually uploading. B. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 to a USB drive and the firewall will automatically update after the USB drive is inserted in the firewall. C. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 updates from the support site to install on each firewall. D. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 update from one firewall to all of the other remaining after updating one firewall. E. Download and install PAN-OS 7.0.4 directly on each firewall. F. Download and push PAN-OS 7.0.4 from Panorama to each firewall. Answer: A,E,F
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Share some EMCCIS E10-002 exam questions and answers below. What is a function of the physical layer of a cloud infrastructure? A. Storing data on storage devices B. Creating resource pools C. Invoking provisioning tasks D. Dynamically allocating resources Answer: A
An organization plans to migrate an application that has loosely coupled components. Which migration strategy is suitable for such an application? A. Hybrid B. Forklift C. Functional D. Compatible Answer: A
Which layer of a cloud infrastructure includes tools that optimize resource utilization? A. Virtual layer B. Physical layer C. Orchestration layer D. Service layer Answer: A
Which cloud service model enables an organization to deploy a proprietary operating system and applications on a cloud provider’s resources? A. Infrastructure as a Service B. Platform as a Service C. Software as a Service D. Desktop as a Service Answer: A
Which EMC product offers customers a choice of hypervisor, compute system, and network technology? A. VSPEX B. Vblock C. VPLEX D. VNX Answer: A
What provides an on-demand self-service capability to consumers, allowing them to unilaterally provision cloud resources? A. Web-based cloud portal B. Specialized connectors C. SOAP and REST web services D. Service orchestration Answer: A
Which statement describes cloud service arbitrage? A. A cloud broker combines a variable number of cloud services into one or more services. B. A cloud broker enhances a given service by improving some specific capability. C. A cloud broker combines a fixed number of cloud services into one or more services. D. A cloud broker provides value-added services to cloud consumers. Answer: A
In which chargeback model do consumers commit up-front on their required cloud resources for the committed period? A. Fixed cost B. Pay-as-you-go C. Subscription by peak usage D. User-based Answer: A
What is an accurate statement about resource pooling in cloud computing? A. It enables cloud resources to be assigned and reassigned according to consumer demand. B. It enables cloud resources to be monitored and controlled by the consumer. C. It enables consumers to maintain required performance levels and adapt to variation in workload. D. It enables consumers to access cloud services from heterogeneous client platforms. Answer: A
What is a function of the control layer of a cloud infrastructure? A. Configuring resource pools B. Pooling resources C. Communicating across computer systems D. Providing workflows for executing tasks Answer: A
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