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What provides an on-demand self-service capability to consumers, allowing them to unilaterally provision cloud resources? A. Web-based cloud portal B. Specialized connectors C. SOAP and REST web services D. Service orchestration Answer: A
Which cloud service model enables an organization to deploy a proprietary operating system and applications on a cloud provider’s resources? A. Infrastructure as a Service B. Platform as a Service C. Software as a Service D. Desktop as a Service Answer: A
An organization plans to migrate an application that has loosely coupled components. Which migration strategy is suitable for such an application? A. Hybrid B. Forklift C. Functional D. Compatible Answer: A
Which statement describes cloud service arbitrage? A. A cloud broker combines a variable number of cloud services into one or more services. B. A cloud broker enhances a given service by improving some specific capability. C. A cloud broker combines a fixed number of cloud services into one or more services. D. A cloud broker provides value-added services to cloud consumers. Answer: A
In which chargeback model do consumers commit up-front on their required cloud resources for the committed period? A. Fixed cost B. Pay-as-you-go C. Subscription by peak usage D. User-based Answer: A
What is an accurate statement about resource pooling in cloud computing? A. It enables cloud resources to be assigned and reassigned according to consumer demand. B. It enables cloud resources to be monitored and controlled by the consumer. C. It enables consumers to maintain required performance levels and adapt to variation in workload. D. It enables consumers to access cloud services from heterogeneous client platforms. Answer: A
Which EMC product offers customers a choice of hypervisor, compute system, and network technology? A. VSPEX B. Vblock C. VPLEX D. VNX Answer: A
Which layer of a cloud infrastructure includes tools that optimize resource utilization? A. Virtual layer B. Physical layer C. Orchestration layer D. Service layer Answer: A
What is a function of the control layer of a cloud infrastructure? A. Configuring resource pools B. Pooling resources C. Communicating across computer systems D. Providing workflows for executing tasks Answer: A
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You are testing the push-button reset feature.When you attempt to recover a computer, you discover that after each restart the computer enters the Installing Windows phase.You discover that a third-party antivirus application is captured in the customization package.You need to modify the image to ensure that the push-button reset can complete successfully.What should you do first? A. Run scanstate.exe and specify the /hardink parameter. B. Copy the subfolders of the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) files from the User State Migration Tool (USMT) and Windows Setup. C. In the Scanstate configuration file, modify the Migrate attribute for the antivirus application. D. Run dism.exe and specify the /Cleanup-Wim and Cleanup-MountPoints parameters. Answer: C
You have a computer named Computer1.You deploy an image of Windows 10 to Computer1. You start Computer1 in audit mode, and then you install several device drivers.You need to capture an image of Computer1.Which tool should you use? A. Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM) B. dism.exe C. Express Deployment Tool (EDT) for Windows 10 D. scanstate.exe Answer: A
You plan to create on image of Windows 10 that contains a push button reset solution. The solution will have custom settings for each edition of Windows 10.You need to prepare the push-button reset solution.What should you include in the solution? A. an unattended file and a bare metal recovery configuration B. an unattended file and extensibility scripts C. extensibility scripts and system restore points D. a bare metal recovery configuration and Scanstate packages Answer: D
You have an image of Windows 10.You discover that files in the Windows Component Store are corrupt.You need to repair the files in the component store.What should you do? A. Run dism.exe and specify the /Cleanup-Image and the /RestoreHealth parameters. B. Run dlsm.exe and specify the /Cleanup Image and the /StartComponentCleanup parameters. C. Run sfc.exe and specify the /scanfile and /offwindir parameters. D. Run sfe.exe and specify the /scannow parameter. Answer: B
You deploy Windows 10 and Microsoft Office 2016 to a test computer.You plan to capture an image of the test computer, and then to deploy the image to computers that will be sold to your customers.You need to ensure that when a customer first starts an Office application, the customer is prompted to try, buy, or activate Office. What should you run on the test computer before the capture? A. officedeploymenttool.exe B. setup.exe /admin C. oemsetup.cmd Mode=OEM D. setup.exe /configure Answer: D
You have a computer that runs Window 10. The computer starts in UEFI mode and has a 64-bit processor.You insert a USB key in the computer. The USB key has a drive letter of F.You need to ensure that you can start the computer by using Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) from the USB key.Which two commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. makewinpemedia.cmd /UFD C:WinPE F: B. makewinpemedia.cmd /ISO C:WinPE F: C. copype.cmd amd64 C:WinPE D. dism.exe /Export-Image /SourceImageFile:CWinPEboot.wim /SourceIndex:1 /DestinationImageFile:Fboot.wim E. copype.cmd x86 C:WinPE Answer: AC
You deploy an image of Windows 10 to a computer, and then you install Microsoft Office 2016 on the computer.You plan to deliver the computer to a customer.You need to ensure that the computer meets the terms of the OEM license agreement. The solution must ensure that the customer can customize the Windows operating system, create user accounts, name the computer, and perform other tasks.Which sysprep.exe parameter should you specify? A. /mode B. /generalize C. /oudit D. /oobe Answer: D
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Take the initiative to attack the most important feature is to listen information, to obtain confidential information, while the data owner or legitimate user, this kind of activities can not know. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B
In USG series firewall, use non-well-known port provides well-known application service, can adopt the following techniques: A. port mapping B. the MAC and IP address binding C. packet filter D. long connection Answer: A
Terminal security system supports Bluetooth, SD card and other computer peripherals monitoring function, and support configuration peripheral equipment prohibited. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: A
In IPsec VPN configuration if you use pre-shared key way to verify, you can choose whether to configure the secret key for the opposite end, but if you configured the secret key, the secret key must be the same on both sides. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B
Session-based state inspection firewall for the first packet and subsequent packet have different processing procedure,which of the following description is correct? ( ) A. packet reaches the firewall, looks for the sessions table, if there is no match, the firewall will do the first packet processing procedure B. packet reaches the firewall, looks for the sessions table, and if they match the firewall will do the subsequent packet processing procedure C. In the case of state inspection mechanism open, the firewall TCP packets, only the SYN packets can establish a session D. In the case of state inspection mechanism open, the follow-up and he need for security policy checks Answer: ABC
Firewall Gateway Anti-Virus Response includes alerting and blocking, the way in which the alarm device only generates a log, sent out without processing on HTTP protocol to transmit the document: blocking the way equipment is disconnected from the HTTP server and block files, push Web pages to the client and generates logs. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: A
The following description of the contents of the each stage of the SSL handshake protocol, which is wrong? A. the client sends client_Hello message, the server response Server_Hello news B. the server sends Server_Hello and then wait for the client sends the message C. after the client receives a series of messages sent by the server and digest, send Client Key Exchange message to the server. D. the client and the server send ChangeCipherSpec and finished messages to each other Answer: B
HRP session fast backup is the main equipment of corresponding state information table fast backup to the backup device, so that return packets in an alternate device able to find the corresponding state information table entries, so as to ensure the business of internal and external users don't interrupt. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: A
How to view the matching number of security policy? A. display firewall sesstion table B. display security policy all C. display security-policy count D. count security policy hit Answer: B
Which of the following components are terminal security system mainly composed of ? ( multiple choice) A. Anti-virus server B. SC control server C. Access control equipment D. SM management server Answer: BCD
Which of the following items does the five elements of terminal security system not include? A. Identity authentication B. Business isolation C. Safety certification D. Business authorization Answer: B
Which of the following does AAA contains ? ( ) A. Authentication B. Authorization C. Accounting D. Audit Answer: ABC
Which of the following are included in the operating system patch violations level of Terminal security system? (Multiple choice) A. Low B. Important C. serious D. General Answer: CD
CA (Certificate Authority) certificate used for verifying the user's identity of virtual gateway when SSL communication connection is established, saved in the device side, issued by the CA institution. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: A
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Share some HCNP-WLAN H12-322-ENU exam questions and answers below. Which of the following is typical WLAN high-density access scenario? A. Wireless cash register B. Mobile ward-round C. stadiums D. asset location Answer: C
In Huawei WLAN network program, the 5W controlled by fine strategy, what kind of control does What refer to? A. Permission control based on user role B. Time-based access control C. Location-based access control D. Policy control based on terminal type Answer: D
Which of the following statement about the WLAN indoor distribution system and the existing operator's indoor distribution Combiner is wrong? A. WLAN signal and GSM, CDMA, 3G and other signals are not in the same frequency and the combiner has a high degree of isolation, so there is no interference between the different band signals B. The existing indoor distribution devices (power splitter/coupler/antenna) also need to support WLAN 2.4G band, otherwise need to replace the indoor distribution devices C. Operator signals can meet the coverage requirements, access to WLAN signals can also meet generally D. There is a shunt-wound topological relationship between the indoor distribution APs, and multiple APs are not allowed to install in series on a branch. Answer: C
When using two AC for VRRP networking, what kind of address allocation scheme cannot be used in order to assign the correct address and gateway to the AP? A. Static specified address scheme B. DHCP interface pool scheme C. DHCP global pool scheme D. DHCP relay scheme Answer: B
WLAN outdoor coverage planning, using an external 2.4G 3dBi omnidirectional antenna, how much is the proposed coverage radius? A. 30~50 B. 80~100 meters C. 150~200 meters D. 200~250 meters Answer: B
Which of the following statements on the indoor distribution devices are right? (Multiple choice) A. combiner can compound multiplexed input signal to one way to output, reverse filter and separate the mixed signal B. One signal can be divided into multi-channel signal by Power splitter to output C. The coupler is a power divider with unequal output power that removes the desired signal energy from the mainline to the remote antenna and allocates more signal energy to the proximal antenna D. WLAN indoor distribution network generally use microstrip power splitter, relative to the cavity power splitter, power is low, and cost is low. Answer: ABD
Which of the following options belong to the life cycle phase of the WLAN project? (Multiple choice) A. Planning B. deployment C. upgrade D. Operation and maintenance E. Troubleshooting Answer: ABD
Assuming that the Root AP is installed on a 30-meter tower with coordinates (0m, 0m), four Leaf APs are at (200m, 100m), (200m, 0m), (800m, 400m) and (1000m, 0m) four locations on the 7-meter utility pole, all devices use the AP6510DN, and the antenna is the same. Each Leaf AP requires 1Mbps bandwidth, local EIRP is unlimited. For Root AP, which of the following antennas is optimal? A. 11dBi_H60°_V30° B. 27dBi_H5°_V5° C. 18dBi_H15°_V15° D. 13dBi_H15°_V60° Answer: A
About the description of the AP9330DN feeder, which of the following statement is wrong? (Multiple choice) A. The same length of the feeder, 5GHz attenuation value is less than 2.4GHz attenuation value. B. With the same AP9330DN, all feeders must be kept equal. C. Feeder is divided into four kinds of specifications, cannot be made on-site. D. The same length of the feeder, 5GHz attenuation value is greater than 2.4GHz attenuation value. Answer: AB
How many APs can ACU2 manage? A. 512 B. 1024 C. 2048 D. 4096 Answer: C
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Share some HCNA-Transmission H31-311-ENU exam questions and answers below. Dispersion coefficient is the delay inequality generated by optical wavelength signal in the unit wavelength interval through the unit length of optical fiber, then which of the following is unit of the dispersion coefficient? A. ps/nm B. ps/km C. ps/nm.km D. ps/km.nm Answer: C
When the PM segment of the ODUk generates a serious errored second, the network administrator will report ODUk_PM_ES alarm. A. True B. False Answer: B
Physical port: also known as the MAC port, it is the external port of the board. A. True B. False Answer: A
Compared with the traditional SDH and SONET equipment, which of the following advantages does OTN have? (Multiple choice) A. by wavelength division functions meet the demand of each light Tb/s transmission bandwidth B. Provide 2.7Gb/s, 10.7Gb/s, 43Gb/s or even 111.8Gb/s high-speed interface C. Provide TCM connection monitoring with up to 5 level nested overlaps D. Support virtual concatenation transmission mode to improve and optimize the network structure E. provide a strong out-of-band FEC function, effectively guarantee the line transmission performance Answer: ABDE
Which of the following statement about optical amplifiers and regenerators are correct? (Multiple choice) A. regenerator cost is higher B. regenerator works at the occasion of a specific bit rate and in a specific frame format C. amplifier can work at the occasion of any bit rate and frame format D. Optical amplifier is less used, the regenerator is used universally Answer: ABC
For OSN6800 equipment, which of the following slots does not have an electricity layer backplane bus? A. Slot1 B. SIot9 C. SIot10 D. SIot17 Answer: D
Which of the following is the adjustment unit of the AU-PTR? A. One byte B. Two bytes D. Three bytes E. Four bytes Answer: C
Which of the following does the advantage of WDM mainly include? (Multiple choice) A. Large capacity, the data "transparent" transmission B. System upgrade easy, upgrade can maximally protect existing investments C. can fully replace the SDH equipment D. Compatible with future all-optical switching networks E. High degree of networking flexibility, economy and reliability Answer: ABDE
Which of the following description about MPLS is not correct? (Multiple choice) A. MPLS: Multi-protocol Label Switching, a non-standardized routing and switching technology platform B. P/PE: P (Provider) is an MPLS network internal node, PE (Provider Edge) for the MPLS network edge C. PE->P operates as Egress, and the MPLS label is added to the client signal D. P->P operates as Ingress and exchanges MPLS labels Answer: ACD
MPLS is a label forwarding technology, which of the following is the original design purpose? A. Improve the IP address usage rate B. Improve the forwarding speed of the router C. Reduce the time delay of the network D. Avoid broadcast storms Answer: B
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